Hello Paul, and anyone else who is around -- I was
wondering...concerning that familiar chart of harmonic number vs.
amplitude, with each sucessive harmonic much diminished in volume than
the previous...does this phenomenon contribute, at all, to the actual
manner in which a single chord actually vibrates? I mean, assuming,
on the piano, for instance, the chord c-e-b, with each note struck
with equal force, would the interval e-b, being a fifth, and
containing higher amplitude harmonics, be in some way 'louder' that
the third? I imagine it wouldn't be literally, mearably louder, but
perhaps, with the coinciding partials and all that we've discussed
before, is there any amplitude effect at all in that phenomenon?

Regards, Kelly