60 Questions For The Christians
TRINITY
According to most Christians, Jesus was God-incarnate, full man and full God
Can the finite and the infinite be one? "To be full" God means freedom from
finite forms and from helplessness, and to be "full man" means the absence
of divinity.
1.To be son is to be less than divine and to be divine is to be no one’s son
How could Jesus have the attributes of sonship and divinity altogether?
2.Christians assert that Jesus claimed to be God when they quote him in John
14:9: "He that has seen me has seen the Father". Didn’t Jesus clearly say
that people have never seen God, as it says in John 5:37: "And the father
himself which Has sent me, has borne witness of me. You have NEITHER HEARD
HIS VOICE AT ANY TIME NOR SEEN HIS SHAPE"?
3.Christians say that Jesus was God because he was called Son of God, Son of
Man, Messiah, and "savior". Ezekiel was addressed in the Bible as Son of Man
Jesus spoke of "the peace makers" as Sons of God. Any person who followed
the Will and Plan of God was called SON OF GOD in the Jewish tradition and
in their language (Genesis 6:2,4; Exodus 4:22; Psalm 2:7; Romans 8:14).
Messiah" which in Hebrew means "God’s anointed" and not "Christ", and "Cyrus
the person is called "Messiah" or "the anointed". As for "savior", in II
KINGS 13:5, other individuals were given that title too without being gods.
So where is the proof in these terms that Jesus was God when the word son is
not exclusively used for him alone?
4.Christians claim that Jesus acknowledged that he and God were one in the
sense of nature when he says in John 10:30 "I and my father are one". Later
on in John 17:21-23, Jesus refers to his followers and himself and God as
one in five places. So why did they give the previous "one" a different
meaning from the other five "ones?
5.Is God three-in-one and one in three simultaneously or one at a time?
6.If God is one and three simultaneously, then none of the three could be
the complete God. Granting that such was the case, then when Jesus was on
earth, he wasn’t a complete God, nor was the "father in Heaven" a whole God.
Doesn’t that contradict what Jesus always said about His God and our God in
heaven, his Lord and our Lord ? Does that also mean that there was no
complete god then, between the claimed crucifixion and the claimed
resurrection?
7.If God is one and three at a time, then who was the God in heaven when
Jesus was on earth? Wouldn’t this contradict his many references to a God in
Heaven that sent him?
8.If God is three and one at the same time, who was the God in Heaven within
three days between the claimed crucifixion and the claimed resurrect ion?
9.Christians say that: "The Father(F) is God, the Son(S) is God, and the
Holy Ghost(H) is God, but the Father is not the Son, the Son is not the Holy
Ghost, and the Holy Ghost is not the Father". In simple arithmetic and terms
therefore, if F = G, S = G, and H = G, then it follows that F = S = H, while
the second part of the statement suggests that F ¹ S ¹ H (meaning, "not
equal"). Isn’t that a contradiction to the Christian dogma of Trinity in
itself ?
10.If Jesus was God, why did he tell the man who called him "good master"
not to call him "good" because accordingly, there is none good but his God
in Heaven alone?
11.Why do Christians say that God is three-in-one and one in three when
Jesus says in Mark 12:29: "The Lord our God is one Lord" in as many places
as yet in the Bible?
12.If belief in the Trinity was such a necessary condition for being a
Christian, why didn’t Jesus teach and emphasize it to the Christians during
his time? How were those followers of Jesus considered Christians without
ever hearing the term Trinity? Had the Trinity been the spinal cord of
Christianity, Jesus would have emphasized it on many occasions and would
have taught and explained it in detail to the people.
13.Christians claim that Jesus was God as they quote in John 1:1 "In the
beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God".
This is John speaking and not Jesus. Also, the Greek word for the first
occurrence of God is HOTHEOS which means "the God" or "God" with a capital
G", while the Greek word for its second occurrence is "TONTHEOS", which
means "a god " or "god" with a small "g". Isn’t this dishonesty and
inconsistency on the part of those translating the Greek Bible? ? Isn’t such
quotation in John 1:1 recognized by every Christian scholar of the Bible to
have been written by a Jew named Philo Alexandria way before Jesus and John?
14.Wasn’t the word "god" or "TONTHEOS" also used to refer to others as well
as in II Corinthians 4:4 "(and the Devil is) the god of this world" and in
Exodus 7:1 "See , I have made thee (Moses ) a god to Pharaoh"?

SALVATION:
Christians say that "GOD LOST His only son to save us". To whom did God lose
Jesus if he owns the whole universe?
15. If it was agreeable with God’s Majesty to have sons, He could have
created a million sons the like of Jesus. So what is the big clear deal
about this only son?
16.Why does the Bible say that Jesus wanted to die on the cross, when the
one on the cross was shouting "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?"
according to Matthew 27:45 and Mark 15:33?
17. If God had wanted to save us, couldn’t He have done that without
sacrificing Jesus?
18. God is Just, and justice requires that nobody should be punished for the
sins of others, nor should some people be saved by punishing other people.
Doesn’t the claim that God sacrificed Jesus to save us because He was Just,
contradict the definition of justice?
19. People sacrifice things they have to get something they don’t have when
they can’t have both. Christians say that "God SACRIFICED His only son to
save us". We know that God is Almighty; to whom did He sacrifice Jesus?
20. A real sacrifice is when you can’t get back what you have offered , so
what would be the big deal about such a sacrifice if God could recover the
same offering? (according to the Christians’ terminology)?
21. If all the Christians are saved through Jesus and are going to Heaven no
matter what they do, then the teachings of Jesus are irrelevant and the
definition of good and bad are also rendered irrelevant. If this is not so,
then do Christians who believe in Jesus yet do not follow his teachings nor
repent go to Hell?
22. How can Christians take deeds as irrelevant after becoming one when
Jesus says in Matthew 12:36; "But I say unto you that every idle word that
men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the Day of Judgment. For
by the words thou shalt be justified, and by the words thou shalt be
condemned"?
23. Christians say that people go to Heaven ONLY THROUGH JESUS, yet Paul
says in 1 CORINTHIANS 7:8-16 that the unbelieving husband is acceptable to
God because he is united with his wife and vice versa, and their pagan
children are also acceptable to God. So people can go to heaven without
believing in Jesus according to this.
24. How come the Bible says that ALL Israel is saved although they don’t
believe in Jesus? Doesn’t that contradict the claim in the Bible that the
only way to heaven is through Jesus?
25. According to Christians, those who have not been baptized will go to
Hell. So even the infants and babies go to Hell if not baptized, since they
are born with an inherited original sin. Doesn’t this contradict the
definition of justice? Why would God punish people for sins they never
committed?




TO BE CONTINUED




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http://www.beconvinced.com/
http://www.plaintruth.org/
http://english.islamway.com/
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